By Paul Salahuddin Armstrong
Veiling the face originally signified the woman or girl dressed in such a manner is a prostitute or slave, available for sex to anyone in the street or their master’s bidding…
I know this may sound shocking, considering it’s not what we get told by mullahs, but it can be easily proven, just go to Genesis 38:14-15 which relates an event from thousands of years ago:
she took off her widow’s clothes, covered herself with a veil to disguise herself, and then sat down at the entrance to Enaim, which is on the road to Timnah. For she saw that, though Shelah had now grown up, she had not been given to him as his wife. When Judah saw her, he thought she was a prostitute, for she had covered her face.
Another incident is related in Genesis 24:64-65, where a servant girl puts on her veil, indicating this was a symbol of servitude:
Rebekah also looked up and saw Isaac. She got down from her camel and asked the servant, “Who is that man in the field coming to meet us?”
“He is my master,” the servant answered. So she took her veil and covered herself.
Please bear in mind, ‘servant’ in that verse is the Hebrew ‘ebed’, which means the girl was a slave. Slave girls were routinely used by their masters to satisfy their sexual urges and those of any guests their master ordered them to serve. Free women on the other hand, were clearly not required to veil or to do any such thing!
Before you takfir me, please bear in mind these accounts are thousands of years old, long before Islam (as we know it) emerged on the scene. With just a little research, it would not be difficult to find similar Roman and Byzantine accounts of face veiling. How therefore can the practice of veiling the face be Islamic, when it symbolises the status of a prostitute?
Women are honoured in Islam, not treated as prostitutes! I do not want my sisters being treated like prostitutes or being told to dress like them.
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